JAA ATPL Question Bank

010 - AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES 021 - AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS, ELECTRICS, POWERPLANT, EM. EQUIPMENT 022 - INSTRUMENTATION 031 - MASS AND BALANCE - AEROPLANES 032 - PERFORMANCE - AEROPLANES 033 - FLIGHT PLANNING AND FLIGHT MONITORING 040 - HUMAN PERFORMANCE 050 - METEOROLOGY 061 - GENERAL NAVIGATION 062 - RADIO NAVIGATION 071 - OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES 081 - PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT - AEROPLANE 091 - VFR COMMUNICATIONS 092 - IFR COMMUNICATIONS

[ATPL TOPICS] INTERNATIONAL AGREEMENTS AND ORGANISATIONS ANNEX 8 - AIRWORTHINESS OF AIRCRAFT ANNEX 7 - AIRCRAFT NATIONALITY AND REGISTRATION MARKS ANNEX 1 - PERSONNEL LICENSING RULES OF THE AIR (based on ANNEX 2) FLIGHT PROCEDURES, OPERATIONS & NAVIGATION ANNEX 11 - AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES (ATS) AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION SERVICE ANNEX 15 ANNEX 14 - AERODROMES ANNEX 9 - FACILITATION ANNEX 12 - SEARCH AND RESCUE / SAR ANNEX 17 - SECURITY AIRCRAFT ACCIDENT AND INCIDENT INVESTIGATION

[ATPL SUBTOPICS]

1 | Which Annex to the Chicago Convention covers dangerous goods carried in aircraft? 2 | What is each contracting state of ICAO required to provide? 3 | For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force? 4 | Where was the Convention on International Civil Aviation signed in 1944? 5 | The objectives of ICAO were ratified by the: 6 | Annex 14 to the convention on international civil aviation contains SARPS for: 7 | Where there is an amendment to an International Standard a State must give notice to: 8 | According to the Chicago Convention, aircraft of Contracting States shall have the right t 9 | The Paris Convention of 1919 defined the status of international airspace and gave the aut 10 | The Air Navigation Commission consists of: 11 | One of the main objectives of ICAO is to: 12 | Which of the following concerning aviation, applies in areas where international law is ap 13 | For which flights is the article about cabotage in the Convention of Chicago applicable? 14 | The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered: 15 | Annex 17 to the Convention of Chicago covers: 16 | Concerning the Chicago Convention of 1944: 17 | What is the obligation of a State in the event of non-compliance with an International Sta 18 | Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO? 19 | If a state finds that it is impracticable to comply with an International Standard: 20 | The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes: 21 | Which of the following statements is true regarding the Rules of the Air over the high sea 22 | What is the definition of HIGH SEAS? 23 | Where is the headquarters of ICAO? 24 | Non-scheduled aircraft of one contracting state have the right: 25 | Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written notification to t 26 | Which is the permanent body of ICAO being responsible to the Assembly? 27 | Article 36 of the Chicago Convention is concerned with photographic apparatus in aircraft. 28 | What is the proper name given to a business that includes the provision of flights for the 29 | An aircraft flying over the territory of another state must: 30 | Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission 31 | Who is responsible for the development and modifications of the SARPS: 32 | The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) was established by the international 33 | Which of the following ICAO documents contain International Standards and Recommended Prac 34 | Which Annex to the Chicago Convention deals with Licensing of Aircrew? 35 | The president of the ICAO Council is elected for: 36 | Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by notification addressed to... 37 | The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of internatio 38 | The right to damages is lost if an action is not brought within 2 years, this time starts 39 | In which area of Air Traffic Control in Europe does Eurocontrol have a logical and operati 40 | The privilege for an airplane registered in one state and enroute to or from that state, t 41 | The convention of Tokyo applies to damage: 42 | An airline is planning a flight that will require a technical landing in a neighboring sta 43 | The JAA is controlled by: 44 | The privilege to land in another ICAO participating State for technical reasons is called: 45 | The problems of hijacking were discussed at: 46 | Does the liability of a carrier extend to the carriage of mail and cargo as well as passen 47 | The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with: 48 | Which of the following is one of the main objectives of the Joint Aviation Authorities (JA 49 | Under the terms of the Tokyo convention of 1963, what is a contracting state required to d 50 | The first freedom of the air is: 51 | Why is the 8th freedom of the air particularly applicable to the European Union? 52 | What did the Conference of Cyprus in 1990 establish? 53 | Within Europe, certain non-scheduled commercial flights between ECAC States may be carried 54 | In 1955 an intergovernmental organization was founded in Europe to promote the continuing 55 | Which freedom gives the privilege to land for non-traffic purposes in another ICAO contrac 56 | 5th Freedom of the Air is: 57 | What is the status of IATA? 58 | The Warsaw Convention of 1929 dealt with the liabilities of carriers and their agents. Spe 59 | Is the JAA membership restricted to the members of the European Union? 60 | The privilege to land for non-traffic purposes, e.g. refueling, maintenance is to followin 61 | An aircraft having sustained damage while on the territory of a Contracting State other th 62 | The second freedom of the air is the: 63 | The convention which deals with offences against penal law is: 64 | Which convention makes acts of violence on board, destruction of aircraft in flight and de 65 | If a state applied CABOTAGE, what would be prevented? 66 | What does the second Freedom of the Air permit? 67 | What is the relationship between the JAA and ECAC? 68 | According to the Tokyo Convention of 1963, who is considered to be competent to exercise j 69 | How will a member State withdraw from the Tokyo Convention? 70 | According to which Convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person comm 71 | The privilege to fly across the territory of another participating state without landing i 72 | A carrier is liable for damage sustained in the event of death or wounding of a passenger 73 | What privilege does the first 'Freedom of the Air' grant? 74 | The right to damages is lost if an action is not brought within: 75 | 6th Freedom of the Air is: 76 | The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft is called: 77 | " Cabotage" refers to: 78 | Which convention deals with the liability of a carrier to passengers and freight consignee 79 | Which convention on international air navigation resulted in the agreements concerning the 80 | What are the measures by which free movement of aeroplanes, crew, passengers and goods not 81 | When an aircraft subjected to an unlawful interference has landed it shall notify by the m 82 | What is cabotage? 83 | What flights are protected by the Prevention of Terrorism Act? 84 | What does the International Air Transport Agreement provide for? 85 | The privilege of landing in another state for a technical stop only is called: 86 | Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by aircraft 87 | The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has commit 88 | Where are the duties and responsibilities of the Commander defined? 89 | What can the Commander of an aircraft do if he has reason to believe that a person has or 90 | The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to endure adequate compensation 91 | The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with: 92 | Where was the 1952 convention that deals with damage caused by foreign aircraft to third p 93 | If a person is injured by a part falling from an aircraft flying over the state but regist 94 | Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused 95 | Who is responsible when damage is caused by an aeroplane to persons or property on the gro 96 | What is a JAA operator required to do before he is permitted to WET LEASE IN an aeroplane 97 | If a JAA operator (A) provides an aeroplane and complete crew for lease to another JAA ope 98 | Can a JAA operator dry lease an aeroplane from FAA operator on a short notice basis withou 99 | The state of design shall ensure that there exists a continuing structural integrity progr 100 | When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, 101 | Who is competent to issue a Certificate of Airworthiness? 102 | Which of the following is not found on the Certificate of Airworthiness: 103 | The Standards of Airworthiness, detailed in Annex 8 part III are applicable to: 104 | Who is responsible for determining the continuing airworthiness of an aeroplane? 105 | The standards of Annex 8 (Airworthiness of Aircraft) relate to: 106 | Annex 8 covers airworthiness of aircraft. Who is responsible for the administration of the 107 | According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain 108 | Who is responsible for the issuance of a certificate of airworthiness? 109 | The continuation of validity of a Certificate of Airworthiness is dependant upon what? 110 | The loading limitations shall include: 111 | Which of the following statements are correct concerning the flight crew compartment door? 112 | A gyroplane is classified as a: 113 | Which annexes to the Chicago Convention deals with registration and marking of aircraft? 114 | The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail 115 | Which of the following is a prohibited combination in aircraft registration letters? 116 | When letters are used for the registration mark, combinations shall not be used which migh 117 | When the first character of the registration mark is a letter: 118 | When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be 119 | According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of 120 | Regarding an aircraft Certificate of Registration: 121 | How high are the markings on the horizontal surfaces of an aeroplane? 122 | Certain registration marks are prohibited by Annex 7 (Aircraft Nationality and Registratio 123 | When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might 124 | When letters are used for registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be 125 | The certificate of registration shall: 126 | Annex 7 (Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks) contains: 127 | What is a COMMON MARK? 128 | Which of the following letter-groups may not be used as registration mark? 129 | State that is responsible for assigning registration marks and how registration marks may 130 | A certificate of registration shall be kept... at all times. 131 | When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be 132 | Where the certificate of registration for an aeroplane must be kept whilst the aeroplane i 133 | Which of the following is not found on the Certificate of Registration: 134 | ICAO Annex 7 contains... 135 | Which of the following registration marks would not be permitted? 136 | The height of the marks on lighter than air aircraft other than unmanned free balloons sha 137 | The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be: 138 | According to Annex 7 (Aircraft Nationality and Registration Markings) certain combinations 139 | An aeroplane has a registration mark D-MABB. Must there always be an hyphen between the na 140 | What is the period of validity of a JAR CPL? 141 | If a JAA member state validates a licence issued by a non-JAA state. How long is the perio 142 | ICAO personnel licensing rules and regulations are contained in Annex... to the Chicago Co 143 | In order to fly as pilot-in-command for commercial air transport, you must hold a type rat 144 | What self medication is permitted by aircrew? 145 | Before a flight instructor can instruct for the issue of CPL(A) he/she must have: 146 | When does the holder of a medical certificate need to seek advice from an authorised medic 147 | When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state the v 148 | " Demonstration of skill to revalidate or renew ratings, and including such oral exam 149 | The assigment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by: 150 | The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrumental Flight Rating in _____ aeroplan 151 | For which aircraft is MCC required? 152 | How long is a JAA ATPL(A) valid for? 153 | When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state, the 154 | If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that lic 155 | How old do you have to be to have a PPL? 156 | Which medical certificate is required for a CPL or ATPL and by whom shall the medical chec 157 | In the context of duty and flight time limitation, “ flight time” means: ti 158 | In order to qualify for an ATPL a pilot must have (1) hours of cross-country flight time o 159 | The period between aircrew medical examinations for an ATPL(A) decreases to 6 months at wh 160 | The validity period of a type rating is 161 | The minimum age for a CPL (A) shall be at least: 162 | According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assesse 163 | An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed in aero 164 | The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is: 165 | According to JAR-FCL, a professional flight crew licence license issued by a non JAA State 166 | Medical requirements are contained in the following JAR-FCL Part: 167 | How old is the applicant required to be to hold an ATPL(A)? 168 | The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be: 169 | An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less than . 170 | The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date: 171 | The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended pra 172 | Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications f 173 | How old does an applicant have to be to hold a Commercial Pilot's Licence? 174 | According to JAR-FCL, Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for 175 | The minimum age for the issue of an ATPL(A) license is: 176 | In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the li 177 | You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL 178 | An applicant for a CPL (A) shall have completed at least the following flight time: 179 | The validity period of a PPL for a pilot between 50 and 65 years is: 180 | What is the total fight time required for the issue of an ATPL(A)? 181 | According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of a newly qualified Flight Instructor are restricted 182 | According to JAR-FCL, Medical certificate classes are: 183 | For the issue of a CPL(A) what cross country experience is required? 184 | Which of the statements concerning the privileges of a holder of a CPL (A) is correct: 185 | According to JAR-FCL, successful completion of multi-crew co-operation (MCC) training shal 186 | A type rating is required for: 187 | How many classes of medical assessment are available for pilots? 188 | According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perf 189 | The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is: 190 | To what matters does JAR FCL-3 relate? 191 | How long is a pilot licence is valid for? 192 | The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be opera 193 | According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for ATPL (A)shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplan 194 | How many hours or days would you have to spend in a clinic or hospital before you would ha 195 | The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an area distant from design 196 | SARP’ s are established for licensing flight crew. Which of the following licences 197 | Type ratings are established for 198 | An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes n 199 | How many hours of night flying is required to obtain an ATPL(A)? 200 | May further ratings under JAR-FCL requirements be obtained be other States than the State 201 | According to JAR-FCL, an examiner's authorisation is valid for: 202 | To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) i 203 | How long is an instructor rating valid for? 204 | The period of validity of a JAR-FCL instrument rating is: 205 | According to JAR-FCL, licence holders do not exercise the privileges of their licences, re 206 | An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue of an i 207 | According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed and compl 208 | How long is a class 1 medical certificate valid for? 209 | An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes n 210 | According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for single pilots aeroplanes not r 211 | What defines NORMAL RESIDENCY? 212 | According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for: 213 | An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold 214 | According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of the holder of an unrestricted FI(A) rating are to 215 | The validity period of an IR (A) is 216 | An instrument rating test is valid for a period of: 217 | The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of any illness which they are 218 | The minimum age to hold a JAR-FCL ATPL (A) is: 219 | According to JAR-FCL, the aeroplane instructor categories recognised are: 220 | What is the JAR FCL definition of instrument time? 221 | When should the holder of a medical certificate seek the advice of the authority or an AME 222 | When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences aeroplane and helicopter have passed 223 | When exercising the privileges of the licence during flight time, what documents are requi 224 | The minimum age for a ATPL (A) shall be at least: 225 | What is the minimum age at which a flight instructor rating may be held? 226 | An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less th 227 | According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A)including a night qual 228 | For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes no 229 | The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under instruction in a 230 | In which circumstance does the holder of a medical certificate need to inform the authorit 231 | Every holder of a medical certificate issued in accordance with JAR-FCL Part 3 (Medical) w 232 | If due to an illness, a pilot is unable to act as a member of a flight crew for a period o 233 | Until the holder of a medical certificate reaches the age of 40, the validity of the medic 234 | An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not 235 | According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings will be 236 | According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for: 237 | Which of the following is one of the privileges of CPL(A)/IR licence? 238 | Type ratings shall be established 239 | An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not 240 | The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of 241 | The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes no 242 | How long is an instrument rating (IR) valid for? 243 | The holder of a licence with a night flying qualification that does not include a valid IR 244 | If you have a type rating on a 737-300, are you permitted to hold a type rating on any oth 245 | The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than: 246 | The PPL(A) or CPL(A) applicant for an IR(A) must have completed: 247 | After a flight crew licence holder reaches their 40th birthday medical assessments are eve 248 | According to JAR-FCL, a professional flight crew licence issued by a non JAA State may be 249 | AIRAC is: 250 | What is Special VFR? 251 | With regard to civil and state aircraft (Article 3). Which of the following is not a state 252 | How is Flight Visibility defined? 253 | When does FLIGHT TIME end? 254 | Flight visibility is: 255 | Which of the following correctly defines flight visibility? 256 | Which of the following correctly defines Special VFR? 257 | What is a danger area? 258 | An aircraft is deemed to be in flight: 259 | What is aerodrome traffic? 260 | PANS are: 261 | An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the 262 | What is the meaning of AGL? 263 | In the case of a piloted flying machine, it shall be deemed to be in flight: 264 | Which of the following defines flight visibility? 265 | How is night defined? 266 | Who shall have the final authority over the disposition of the aircraft? 267 | When operating under Special VFR clearance, the responsibility for remaining clear of obst 268 | The commander of a public transport aircraft must ensure that passenger seat belts are sec 269 | An aircraft is in controlled airspace under ATC control. The responsibility for ensuring a 270 | Who decides whether to fly under IFR or VFR in VMC? 271 | Who is responsible for the security in the aircraft during flight: 272 | In flight who is responsible for compliance with the rules of the air (Annex 2)? 273 | The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time 274 | Which is the correct order of priority: 275 | What is the minimum flight altitude permitted over towns and settlements and populated are 276 | A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average T 277 | An aircraft being towed by night must display: 278 | Anti-collision lights on an aircraft must be switched on: 279 | Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land? 280 | When two aircraft are approaching head on, and there is a danger of collision: 281 | RPL’ s are used for flights with which of the following properties: 282 | In accordance with the general rules, which statement is correct? 283 | An aircraft that has the right of way shall maintain its: 284 | When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions, pilots shall: 285 | An aircraft operated on, or in the vicinity of, an aerodrome shall whether or not within a 286 | Aircraft taxiing in the manoeuvring area must give way to: 287 | Two or more white crosses, displayed on runways and taxiways, indicate that: 288 | When has a flight plan to be filed at the latest: 289 | You have filed a VFR flight plan. What do you put in field 16 (total estimated elapsed tim 290 | During initial climb in uncontrolled airspace, the altimeter setting should be: 291 | Where two aircraft are converging at the same level: 292 | On aerodromes aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to: 293 | Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from 294 | No aircraft shall be flown over the congested area of cities, towns or settlements unless 295 | The pre-flight actions for a flight leaving the local aerodrome area, is to include: 296 | A pilot squawking Mode C when two-way radio communication is lost should select his transp 297 | An airborne flight plan must be submitted: 298 | Aircraft on the manoeuvring area have to give way to: 299 | A flight plan shall be submitted for: 300 | When an aircraft is being operated in the air or on the movement area of an aerodrome, it 301 | With regard to formation flying, aircraft are expected to be: 302 | Flights at or above the lowest usable flight level or where applicable, above the transiti 303 | When two-way radio communication is lost, a pilot should select... on the transponder. 304 | An aircraft Captain should transmit special aircraft observations when he encounters: 305 | On the ground, when two aircraft are approaching head on: 306 | Aircraft " A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a contro 307 | From sunset to sunrise an aircraft in flight shall display: 308 | If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than his destination he must notify ATC of the dest 309 | No aircraft shall be flown over the congested area of cities, towns or settlements unless 310 | Which type of service is provided in Class F airspace: 311 | An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light: 312 | When is deviation from the rules of the air permitted? 313 | One of the following statements about aircraft ground movement is correct: 314 | When two taxiing aircraft are converging: 315 | For flights into control zones, the following meteorological conditions do not require a s 316 | What defines a danger area? 317 | On an IFR flight in airspace class D, you receive a traffic information from ATC, that a V 318 | What is the speed limit below 10 000 ft in Class B airspace? 319 | While flying at night another aircraft reports that you are on his 100 degrees relative be 320 | Aircraft shall not be flown in formation except: 321 | If the ground visibility is reported 1000 m, can a special VFR flight take off from an aer 322 | Except when necessary for take-off or landing, a VFR flight over congested areas of cities 323 | You are outside controlled airspace on a VFR flight above 3,000ft. Your distance from the 324 | If the reported ground visibility is 1000 metres, can a special VFR flight take off from a 325 | In areas where a separation minimum of 1000 ft. is applied up to FL 410, authorization for 326 | The VMC minima for an airspace classified as " G" above 10 000 feet MSL are: 327 | When an aircraft is operating in class F airspace below 900 m amsl the minimum horizontal 328 | An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL and 9 000 feet MSL outside control 329 | The minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds on a VFR flight in airspace class C 330 | SVFR may be authorized when the ground visibility is not less than: 331 | Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight can not enter or leave 332 | Procedure to be applied in case of communication failure in VMC: 333 | VFR operations can be suspended by which of the following: 334 | In order to comply with VFR outside controlled airspace above 3,000ft a pilot must be 1,00 335 | A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the follow 336 | A special VFR clearance may be obtained from ATC for the following airspaces: 337 | In order to operate under visual flight rules above FL100 in uncontrolled airspace these m 338 | VFR flights shall not be operated under which of the following conditions:

339 | VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are: 340 | Except where necessary for landing and take off, VFR flights are not permitted over conges 341 | On a VFR-Flight which of the following cruising levels would you select under the followin 342 | A VFR flight shall comply with the provisions laid out in ATC clearances under which of th 343 | What is put in item 8 of a flight plan form if the flight is to start under VFR and then c 344 | Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are CORRECT? 345 | On a VFR flight, your magnetic track is 005° , the magnetic heading 355° . Which 346 | The VMC minima for an airspace classified as " B" above 10 000 feet MSL are: 347 | An aircraft is at 12,000ft in category F airspace (VFR). The required distance from cloud 348 | What is the VMC criteria for a flight under VFR in class G airspace at 2000 ft AMSL at 200 349 | A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the follow 350 | VFR flight shall not be flown: 351 | When an aircraft is operating in class F airspace above 900 m amsl the minimum vertical di 352 | When flying under IFR, you experience total communications failure in conditions of no clo 353 | Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircr 354 | If the intention is to change from IFR to VFR at some point during flight, the letter... i 355 | You are flying IFR in IMC and you experience a total communications failure. Do you: 356 | If you are flying IFR in IMC conditions and you experience a total communications failure, 357 | An IFR flight shall not be cleared for an initial approach below the appropriate minimum a 358 | Flying a magnetic track of 125deg, what is the correct non RVSM semi-circular flight level 359 | When flying on an airway on a heading of 255(M) the correct flight level will be: 360 | Given:

AGL = above ground level
AMSL = above mean sea level
FL = flight level 361 | Flights away from the vicinity of an aerodrome and all IFR flights shall include which of 362 | When flying in IFR you experience a total communications failure in VMC conditions. What s 363 | While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearan 364 | An aircraft on a controlled flight suffers a radio failure in IMC. Unless a regional navig 365 | Where no minimum flight altitudes have been established for IFR flights, which statement c 366 | Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use t 367 | An aircraft with a communications failure is attempting to land at its destination. It mus 368 | Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft a 369 | An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unl 370 | Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) are: 371 | An aircraft used for simulated instrument flying must have: 372 | On an IFR flight, you experience a total communication failure in conditions of no clouds 373 | If a communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, the pilot shall: 374 | In areas where a vertical separation of 2000 ft has to be applied above FL 290, which grou 375 | During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communic 376 | Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible: 377 | An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced t 378 | Aerodrome control can use light signals when radio communications are not possible. For an 379 | The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that: 380 | A steady green light from aerodrome control to an aircraft on the ground means: 381 | Which signal from a Marshaller indicated 'engage brakes'? 382 | What is the meaning of the following visual ground signal? 383 | Aerodrome control signal to an aircraft in flight using a series of green flashes, what do 384 | A flashing intermittent red light from the ground to an aircraft in the air means: 385 | What is the meaning of the following visual ground signal? 386 | The visual signal for indicating a state of distress in the air is: 387 | When a pilot raises his arms extended palms facing outwards and moves his hands inwards to 388 | While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal 389 | At an aerodrome, a red pyrotechnic means: 390 | An aircraft manoeuvring in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the 391 | Aerodrome control can use light signals when radio communications are not possible. For an 392 | Which signal to an aircraft in flight, means " return for landing" ? 393 | A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means: 394 | A black letter " C" on a yellow background indicates: 395 | Which of the following aerodrome ground signals displayed in the signals area indicates th 396 | A black letter - C - on a yellow background indicates: 397 | What is the meaning of the sign attached here seen in an airfield signal square? 398 | What is the meaning of the following visual ground signal? 399 | The signal from pilot to marshaller which means - brakes applied - is: 400 | What does a red flashing light from the control tower to an aircraft on the manoeuvring ar 401 | Which signal from a marshaller indicates 'all clear'? 402 | steady red light beam directed at an aircraft in flight from the Aerodrome Control tower m 403 | Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experie 404 | Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green fl 405 | What does a red square with a yellow cross in the signals square indicate? 406 | A series of red flashes sent to an aircraft in flight means: 407 | What is the meaning of the following visual ground signal? 408 | Series of red flashes directed towards an aircraft on ground mean: 409 | A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals: 410 | A red square with a yellow diagonal displayed in the signals area indicates: 411 | While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: seri 412 | A double white cross displayed in the signal square means: 413 | A marshaller has his arms above his head in vertical position palms facing inward. This me 414 | Which of the following statements is true about the signals area of an aerodrome? 415 | " Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clen 416 | A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means: 417 | You are in an aircraft at night and the aerodrome control tower begins to flash the taxi a 418 | A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means: 419 | At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has r 420 | At night you observe ground signals from survivors of a disaster. What do you do to indica 421 | The following signal, seen in an airfield signals square indicates: 422 | A green intermittent light from aerodrome control to an aircraft on the ground means: 423 | The light signal indicating "give way to other aircraft and continue circling" is: 424 | A red square panel with a yellow strip along each diagonal, displayed in the signals area 425 | To cross lighted stop bars on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome, the following applies: 426 | Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. The signals given by this aircraft co 427 | An aircraft equipped with SSR transponder which is intercepted by another aircraft shall i 428 | If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a commo 429 | An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall, unles 430 | If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a comm 431 | If, during an interception, instructions received by radio from any sources conflict with 432 | An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall set its transponder to: 433 | After an aircraft has been intercepted in flight, the intercepted aircraft is rocking its 434 | Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to commun 435 | After an aircraft has been intercepted in flight, the intercepting aircraft makes an abrup 436 | An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio c 437 | Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircr 438 | In areas where a vertical separation minimum (VSM) of 300 m (1000 ft) is applied between F 439 | Above flight level FL 290 (non-RVSM) the vertical flight separation between aircraft on th 440 | PANS-OPS means: 441 | The document that specifies the recommendations for instrument procedures is called... 442 | The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approa 443 | What is defined as the portion of a flight in which the aircraft descends below 1000 ft ab 444 | A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the 445 | The Transition Level: 446 | NOZ is: 447 | A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, admin 448 | A " precision approach" is a direct instrument approach... 449 | VORTAC is: 450 | Based on operational considerations, a margin may be added to the OCA of a non-precision a 451 | The " estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated t 452 | A radial is: 453 | A circling approach is: 454 | What is the meaning of MEHT? 455 | What is the meaning of OCA? 456 | What does the abbreviation DER mean? 457 | OCH for a precision approach is defined as: 458 | What is DER? 459 | What is a STAR? 460 | When does night exist? 461 | What is the meaning of DER: 462 | What does AAL mean? 463 | The minimum height to which an aircraft may safely continue a precision approach, without 464 | A visual approach is: 465 | What does the abbreviation OIS mean? 466 | What does the abbreviation DER mean? 467 | In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landin 468 | The approach categories of aircraft are based upon: 469 | Runway visual range is reported when it falls below: 470 | As a rule, while establishing the departure procedures, the operator reckons that aeroplan 471 | During an omni-directional departure, what height are you required to climb to before turn 472 | The main factor that dictates in general the design of an instrument departure procedure i 473 | For a turning departure turns may be specified at: 474 | turning departure is constructed if a departure route requires a turn of more than: 475 | Which of the following factors is not considered in the design of an Instrument Departure 476 | In the event of a delay of 30 minutes in excess of the estimated EOBT for a controlled fli 477 | A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an airport where poor weather conditions 478 | In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the runway cen 479 | What is a low visibility take-off? 480 | A public transport aircraft shall not take-off unless the following minima for the departu 481 | The procedure design gradient (PDG) consists of: 482 | Departure routes are based upon track guidance acquired within: 483 | The PDG is made up of: 484 | We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial 485 | When can the required noise abatement procedure be disregarded? 486 | Which of the following information is promulgated for a departure procedure:
487 | If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is publi 488 | Turning departures provide track guidance within: 489 | Who is responsible for the development of the contingency procedures required to cover the 490 | In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end o 491 | When constructing a turning area departure the temperature used is: 492 | What is the minimum obstacle clearance on an instrument departure? 493 | For an omni-directional departure the procedure ensures that: 494 | For an instrument departure (SID) what is the procedure design gradient (PDG)? 495 | Which of the following standard instrument departures is not a straight departure?
496 | Who is responsible for establishing contingency procedures for engine failure after take o 497 | Two aeroplanes are approaching to land on parallel runways on independent parallel approac 498 | Where does the intermediate missed approach segment end? 499 | What is the minimum lateral limit of the approach area into a control zone from the centre 500 | A so called " Visual Approach" can be performed: 501 | For precision approaches, the Final Approach Fix (FAF) is set at a specified distance from 502 | In a procedure turn (45° /180° ), a 45° turn away from the outbound track 503 | What is the lowest possible MDH for a VOR/DME non-precision approach? 504 | The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with th 505 | Which of the following correctly defines the NOZ for parallel runway operations? 506 | Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment in an 507 | The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid withi 508 | Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend 509 | The primary area of an instrument approach segment is: 510 | Under what circumstances would an ILS glide path in excess of 3° be used? 511 | The climb gradient of a missed approach can be reduced to: 512 | A complete missed approach procedure consists of the following phases? 513 | One of the conditions to descent below the MDA on a circling approach is: 514 | Where does the initial section of a missed approach procedure end? 515 | During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearan 516 | For a non-precision approach, the final approach fix (FAF) is set at a specified distance 517 | If the ILS glide path transmitter fails during an instrument approach procedure, can the a 518 | What is the most important factor when designing an instrument departure procedure? 519 | During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) of the initial approac 520 | If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a circling manoeuvre, what acti 521 | In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial approach segment provides at l 522 | Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. Thes 523 | If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expe 524 | What is the normal minimum missed approach gradient? 525 | Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC charts are 526 | If you lose the necessary visual references while " circling visual" , you shoul 527 | Minimum sector altitudes published on approach charts provide at least the following obsta 528 | For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than: 529 | A CAT I operation is a precision approach and landing using an ILS, MLS or PAR with a DH n 530 | When constructing an instrument approach, the overall tolerance of an intersecting facilit 531 | When determining the OCA for a precision approach, obstacle height is referenced to: 532 | What is the maximum permitted intercept angle between the initial approach track and the i 533 | A visual manoeuvring (circling) area may be sectored to exclude a prominent obstacle. When 534 | When constructing a turning missed approach the pilot reaction time taken into account is: 535 | Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approach procedure? 536 | Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure may include a dead reckoni 537 | If a turn of greater than 15° is required during a missed approach the turn is not a 538 | In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not 539 | During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearan 540 | Which is the minimum obstacle clearance within the primary area of an intermediate approac 541 | Where does the missed approach procedure start? 542 | Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure? 543 | Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment i 544 | Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure 545 | For the construction of precision approaches, which is the operationally preferred glide p 546 | The optimum descent gradient in the final approach should not exceed: 547 | An operator shall not use a RVR of less than... for a visual approach. 548 | You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not 549 | The initial approach segment starts at the...and the obstacle clearance (MOC) provided in 550 | In a procedure turn (45° /180° ), a 45° turn away from the outbound track 551 | The initial missed approach segment: 552 | The obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment is at least: 553 | How many aircraft approach categories are applicable to the new ICAO instrument approach p 554 | What is the lowest possible MDH for an ILS back-beam (localizer back-course) non-precision 555 | During circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight track), the maximum allowed air 556 | The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is: 557 | Normally, a procedure will be designed to provide protected airspace and obstacle clearanc 558 | For a 45/180 procedure turn, what is the outbound leg time for a cat B aircraft? 559 | The obstacle clearance surfaces of an ILS approach assumes a pilot localiser accuracy of: 560 | A missed approach procedure consists of: 561 | Where a final approach fix (FAF) is specified for a non-precision approach procedure, what 562 | At what height is visual circling carried out? 563 | During the arrival and initial segments of an instrument procedure, what is the obstacle c 564 | For an ASR, within 40 nm of the radar, fix tolerance is assumed to be: 565 | On an instrument approach - when may the pilot descend below MSA?
1. When th
566 | When constructing an instrument approach, the overall tolerance of an intersecting facilit 567 | An instrument approach procedure consists of: 568 | Within how many degrees of the published approach track would the aircraft be 'established 569 | Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end? 570 | When performing a circling approach, descent below MDA/H should not be made until: 571 | For a non-precision approach, the elevation of the relevant runway threshold is used if: 572 | What is the distance on final approach within which the controller should suggest that the 573 | In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below: 574 | What is the lowest possible MDH for a SRA non-precision approach terminating at 1NM? 575 | In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the: 576 | What action should be taken if contact is lost with the aerodrome on the downwind leg? 577 | During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic avoidance 578 | Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient 579 | A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outboun 580 | During a visual circling, descent below MDA/H shall not be made until:
1. Vi
581 | In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are based among other standard condit 582 | What is the correct name for a turn from the outbound to the inbound section of an approac 583 | The ILS glide path is normally intercepted between: 584 | How many separate segments has an instrument approach procedure? 585 | Why is the descent gradient kept as low as possible in the intermediate approach segment? 586 | On a non-precision approach a so-called " straight-in-approach" is considered a 587 | In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to: 588 | What obstacle clearance is guaranteed in the initial segment? 589 | A Visual Manoeuvring (Circling) Area may be sectored to exclude a prominent obstacle. Unde 590 | Where does the final approach segment for a precision approach start? 591 | If a dead reckoning segment is used in a STAR to intercept a localiser, what is its maximu 592 | When parallel runway operations are in progress and reduced radar separation of 3 NM betwe 593 | Where ends the initial missed approach segment? 594 | What is the maximum gradient for the final approach segment of a non-precision approach? 595 | Minimum sector altitudes are established for each aerodrome and provide at least .... ft o 596 | When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle clearance al 597 | Where 2 aircraft are established on adjacent parallel ILS localisers, what is the minimum 598 | What is the normal procedure design climb gradient for a missed approach procedure? 599 | Which of the following approach speed ranges (Vat) is applicable for Category B aircraft? 600 | What is the lowest possible MDH for an ILS (without glideslope) non-precision approach? 601 | If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descend shall be made so a 602 | An MSA Provides: 603 | Where does the initial sector of a missed approach procedure end? 604 | Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure commence? 605 | What is the lowest possible MDH for a VOR non-precision approach? 606 | In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above r 607 | Descend below MDA/H is only allowed when... 608 | It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent ob 609 | If, during a visual circling, visual reference is lost while circling to land from an inst 610 | Which of the following is not shown on an approach plate? 611 | The factors considered in the calculations of DA /DH are: 612 | For a circling approach, the minimum OCH above aerodrome level is: 613 | The NTZ extends from... to... 614 | Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not 615 | Where does the missed approach procedure start? 616 | What is the lowest possible MDH for an NDB non-precision approach? 617 | What is the obstacle clearance in the intermediate approach segment? 618 | What is the steepest descent path permitted for a non precision approach? 619 | Who is establishing the aerodrome operational minima for instrument approaches? 620 | In a category A aircraft, what reversing turn manoeuvre takes 2 minutes in still air? 621 | What is the primary area during the intermediate section of an instrument approach? 622 | When constructing an instrument approach, the accuracy of a VOR providing track guidance i 623 | You are flying inbound on radial 232 towards VOR EDI. When you are required to hold overhe 624 | You are required to carry out an offset joining procedure to enter a holding pattern. What 625 | In a holding pattern all turns should be made: 626 | Is the length of the outbound leg of a holding pattern always expressed in terms of time? 627 | The maximum angle of bank to be used in a holding pattern is: 628 | A holding pattern is established on a fix position with an inbound heading of 180° m 629 | What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140? 630 | Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed? 631 | In a standard holding pattern turns are made: 632 | What is the rate of turn/bank angle required for turns in a holding pattern? 633 | In a holding pattern, the pilot should attempt to maintain the... by making allowance for 634 | How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the buffer area? 635 | A holding pattern is established on inbound radial 000 degrees to VOR NTM. You are approac 636 | You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding procedure is 637 | What is the name of a climb or descent in a holding pattern? 638 | What obstacle clearance is guaranteed at a range of 5 nm from the edge of the holding area 639 | If for any reasons a pilot is unable to conform to the procedures for normal conditions la 640 | Which is the normal still air outbound time in a holding pattern? 641 | When holding at FL110, what is the normal outbound leg time? 642 | What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern below FL 140 (no wind)? 643 | The still air time for flying the outbound heading should not exceed... if above 14,000ft. 644 | What is the minimum obstacle clearance guaranteed at the edge of the buffer area (5 nm out 645 | Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft? 646 | In the hold at FL60, what is the normal holding speed in a cat B aircraft? 647 | What is the deviation allowed either side of track between entry sectors when joining a ho 648 | In a holding pattern, turns are to be made: 649 | You are flying towards a VOR on the 320 radial and have been told to hold on the 045 radia 650 | An expected approach time is given: 651 | What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140? 652 | In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be accord 653 | The minimum permissible holding level provides a clearance above the obstacles of at least 654 | Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the ho 655 | What will be your action if you can not comply with a standard holding pattern? 656 | Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexibility on 657 | When you are asked to hold on a non standard holding fix (eg en route) what direction are 658 | In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a: 659 | In an offset entry into an omni directional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° 660 | During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be 661 | The transition level: 662 | Flight below the transition level is referenced to: 663 | With QFE set a serviceable altimeter will indicate: 664 | In the standard atmosphere FL150 is equivalent to: 665 | A pre-flight altimeter check should be carried out: 666 | Flight above the transition altitude is referenced to: 667 | The vertical position of an aircraft is expressed in altitude when: 668 | The QNH at an aerodrome is 985Mb. The transition altitude is 3000 ft. How deep is the tran 669 | The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported: 670 | After setting 1013 Mb at the transition altitude you have to climb 350 ft to the transitio 671 | In the standard atmosphere FL35 is equivalent to: 672 | The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level will be reported: 673 | With QFE set a serviceable altimeter will indicate: 674 | The transition level: 675 | In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft the vertical posi 676 | A pilot operating outside controlled airspace below 3,000 ft should set his altimeter to: 677 | At what moment during the approach should the reported airfield altimeter setting be set? 678 | The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from 679 | The transition altitude for an aerodrome is 5000 ft, the QNH is 943 mb (1 mb = 30 ft). Wha 680 | The QNH is 1040 mbar and you are flying over the sea at 800 ft altitude. What would your f 681 | Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done: 682 | When should the QNH be communicated to aircraft prior to take-off? 683 | Which of the following is true concerning the Transition Altitude? 684 | The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below: 685 | Below and at the transition altitude, the altimeter setting should be: 686 | During flight below the transition altitude, the altimeter of an aircraft shall be set to: 687 | Within a certain tolerance, what is an altimeter required to read? 688 | When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicat 689 | Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjun 690 | The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall set the transponder to Mode A 691 | If an aeroplane cannot squawk IDENT, which of the following is a valid method by which ATC 692 | Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320. In flight, in case of radio communications 693 | If the aircraft can not squawk ident, what directions can ATS give to the pilot, without d 694 | The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information displayed to t 695 | When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously ope 696 | Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator (IDENT) feature unless: 697 | During a pre-flight a SSR transponder is found to be inoperative and immediate repair is n 698 | What SSR squawk would you set in the absence of any specific code instruction from ATC, wh 699 | What SSR squawk indicates communications failure? 700 | When shall the SQUAWK IDENT button be pushed by the pilot? 701 | The SSR code to indicate communications failure is: 702 | What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure? 703 | Which code shall be used on mode " A" to provide recognition of an emergency ai 704 | When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot: 705 | An aircraft equipped with an SSR transponder is expected to operate the transponder on Mod 706 | Which of the following transponder codes is not a valid SSR mode A squawk? 707 | When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponde 708 | Having filed a flight plan to a particular destination and having landed at another destin 709 | A flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old flight plan can 710 | A landing aircraft is not normally permitted to cross the beginning of the runway on its f 711 | What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when under r 712 | Deviation from the TAS in the flight plan is to be reported to ATC. By how much would the 713 | When flying in advisory airspace and using an advisory service, separation is provided fro 714 | In class D airspace the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight above FL 100 is: 715 | FIS: 716 | What should you reply when told " squawk 0412" 717 | A TMA is: 718 | To put " L" in the wake turbulence category box of an ATC flight plan what maxi 719 | The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level w 720 | Two aircraft are reporting over the same VOR, they should be separated by: 721 | The Alerting Service is provided by: 722 | The period of validity for take-off slots assigned by CEU (flow control centre): 723 | For a flight that is subject to flow management, the submission time for the ATC flight pl 724 | A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircr 725 | Where a route is designated G246Z, the Z represents: 726 | Which radar separation minima are applicable between succeeding aircraft established on th 727 | Minimum radar vectoring altitudes should be sufficiently high to minimise... 728 | What does ACC mean? 729 | Which does ATC Term " Radar contact" signify? 730 | RNP type is a containment value expressed in: 731 | A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper 732 | The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace belo 733 | Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information 734 | The supposition of a Distress Phase, compared to an Uncertainty or Alert Phase is best des 735 | " ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC" is that controlled flight to which the provision of separa 736 | " A surveillance technique in which aircraft automatically provide, via data link, da 737 | In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amende 738 | What is an air traffic controller, using radar to provide ATC, required to do prior to pro 739 | The controlling authority for a CTA is an: 740 | What is the speed limit in class E airspace? 741 | When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall terminate the su 742 | What is the objective of filing an ATIR (Air Traffic Incident Report)? 743 | For departing aircraft, transfer from aerodrome control to approach control occurs when: 744 | Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance? 745 | If radar separation of 5 NM during vectoring is being applied, what is the closest an airc 746 | An air traffic control service will be provided in which of the following: 747 | A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least: 748 | In a controlled airspace where DME separations are in use, two aeroplanes under IFR may fl 749 | At least which services have to be provided by ATS within a flight information region? 750 | You have been given clearance by ATC but you are suddenly forced to deviate from it for so 751 | What does ADR mean? 752 | Air Traffic Service unit means: 753 | If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft: 754 | The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed 755 | The expression " Expected approach time (EAT)" is defined as follows: 756 | What is defined as: " A control area or portion thereof established in the form of a 757 | Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way communication f 758 | Except for take off and landing, an IFR flight is to be flown at a level not below the min 759 | A medium and light aircraft are using parallel runways less than 760 metres apart. What is 760 | If you are flying a surveillance radar approach (SRA). What information is reported by rad 761 | When should the aerodrome controller pass the correct time to an aircraft? 762 | If the time estimated for the next reporting point differs from that notified to ATS, a re 763 | Flying exactly on your current flight plan route, you receive and acknowledge the followin 764 | Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled? 765 | Aircraft separated horizontally by track separation when using a NDB facility are consider 766 | An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR mode C 767 | The planned cruising speed for the first leg or the entire cruising portion of the flight 768 | Under which of the following conditions will an aircraft be reported to the area control c 769 | ATC clocks are checked to ensure that the time is correct to within: 770 | Which statement is correct regarding clearances issued by controllers? 771 | If a flight plan has been filed and the flight is delayed a delay message need not be sent 772 | What is the radar wake turbulence separation between a heavy category aircraft and a light 773 | When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns shall be made within the a 774 | Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be 775 | When using parallel runway operations and vectoring aircraft for an ILS approach, how far 776 | Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed as: 777 | Aerodrome lights may be turned off providing they can be brought into operation within.. m 778 | Which of the following statements is true concerning radar separation minima? 779 | An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights rec 780 | To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E: 781 | On IFR flights, who is responsible for the prevention of collision with terrain?
782 | What services are provided to IFR and VFR traffic flying in class E airspace? 783 | Aerodrome control can use light signals when radio communications are not possible. For an 784 | ATCUs should advise aircraft operators or their designated representatives when anticipate 785 | For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation m 786 | A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in control 787 | One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control 788 | Which of the following defines a visual approach? 789 | Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances from the same DME a 790 | Aircraft may be required to report when: 791 | Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the sa 792 | A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least: 793 | An aircraft electing to use an air traffic advisory service while operating IFR is: 794 | The units providing Air Traffic Services are: 795 | When the Mach number technique (MNT) is being applied, and the preceding aircraft shall ma 796 | What is RVSM? 797 | Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airw 798 | Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor 799 | On final approach ATC will inform crew of a change in wind velocity. In the case of a tail 800 | In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed approache 801 | The following applies for aircraft equipped with ACAS:
1. The ACAS capabilit
802 | Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control service is correct? 803 | What is the meaning of ATCRU? 804 | The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the same loca 805 | Which is one of the tasks of an approach controller? 806 | For VFR flights, continuous two way radio communication with ATS is required in the follow 807 | Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards 808 | If a pilot wishes to cancel an IFR flight plan and proceed under VFR in VMC, he must infor 809 | Wake turbulence separation minima are based on the grouping of aircraft. Medium is classed 810 | ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud 811 | What is meant by aerodrome traffic? 812 | An aircraft in the wake turbulence category medium following a heavy on final approach mus 813 | Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller may r 814 | The letter " L" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maxi 815 | When IFR flights are cleared to fly maintaining own separation while in VMC, the following 816 | What is the longitudinal separation between aircraft on the same route, the preceding airc 817 | Unless otherwise required, a flight plan for a flight is to be provided with ATC is to be 818 | The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are: 819 | What is the speed limit applied in class C airspace? 820 | Succeeding aircraft shall be cleared for approach when the preceding aircraft:
821 | The minimum sector altitude provides 300 metres obstacle clearance within how many miles r 822 | What is the minimum separation between two aircraft using the same DME station when they a 823 | In the event of a controlled flight inadvertently deviating from its flight plan. ATC must 824 | If two aeroplanes are departing from the same runway on the same track, and the second int 825 | Two aircraft will be flying the same route at the same cruising level. The first aircraft 826 | Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of: 827 | The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft ha 828 | When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and vectoring 829 | When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the a 830 | " Time Approach Procedure" is used as necessary to expedite the approach of a n 831 | The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft " on track" 832 | An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed appr 833 | At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the 834 | Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements, aircraft under radar- 835 | What are the controlled IFR separation methods applied by ATC? 836 | Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance 837 | Track separation between aircraft using the same navigation aid requires the aircraft to f 838 | A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or 839 | When cleared for an immediate take-off from the holding point you should: 840 | The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level w 841 | What separation is applied to two aircraft where the first is 40 kts faster than the secon 842 | At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the 843 | What is the definition of 'Aerodrome traffic'? 844 | Which of the following has the highest order of priority: 845 | When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the IL 846 | When are ATIS broadcasts updated? 847 | Where a " Secondary Surveillance Radar" (SSR) is not available, radar identific 848 | The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done: 849 | The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft " on tra 850 | Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represent 851 | The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying belo 852 | When climbing or descending through the level of opposite direction traffic what is the mi 853 | ILS CAT II/III operations are being carried out on parallel runways. When is wake turbulen 854 | One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control 855 | The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft on track 856 | Which phase of emergency is declared if an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject 857 | Whenever practicable, NOTAM’ s are distributed by: 858 | Which of the following is information that is not given in AIP approach and landing charts 859 | The ICAO document concerning the provision of the AIS is Annex... to the Convention on Civ 860 | Geographical co-ordinates indicating latitude and longitude are expressed in terms of: 861 | A runway would not be reported as - flooded - unless: 862 | The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in it 863 | An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements 864 | The SIGMET service in the AIP is in the following part: 865 | The information’ s on holding, approach and departure procedures, are found in the 866 | On a flooded runway: 867 | ATIS messages are updated at least: 868 | When should ATIS broadcasts be updated? 869 | How far in advance of the effective date is AIRAC information to be distributed? 870 | The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) are: 871 | 25% of the runway of a runway is covered with standing water. How would ATC describe the s 872 | On a wet runway: 873 | It has been raining but the surface of a runway has no patches of standing water on it. Ho 874 | Runway Visual Range is reported and passed to an aircraft when the visibility falls below: 875 | The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by: 876 | Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with... proc 877 | Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and information o 878 | The alerting service shall be provided to: 879 | In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each prohibited area, res 880 | What is ATIS? 881 | Fuel available at an aerodrome will be published in: 882 | A NOTAM is to be issued to addressees for whom the information is of operational significa 883 | The information’ s concerning charges for aerodromes/heliports and Air Navigation S 884 | What is an ASHTAM used for? 885 | A controlled flight is: 886 | Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with: 887 | Name the chapter in the AIP where one can find a list of significant differences between n 888 | Voice ATIS broadcasts are: 889 | Which of the following correctly identifies significant wind components (assuming the cont 890 | On a damp runway: 891 | Information concerning snow, ice and standing water on aerodrome pavement areas is to be r 892 | A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of: 893 | Which of the following has had a significant effect on the role and importance of aeronaut 894 | What is the purpose of AIS? 895 | What is the meaning of WIP? 896 | In ATIS you receive information that there are " WATER PATCHES" on the runway. 897 | AIP Supplements are: 898 | The width of an advisory route is: 899 | If there is sufficient time for information to be disseminated by other means, a NOTAM is 900 | In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to refuelling faciliti 901 | Which of the following contains administration, financial and legislative information? 902 | An AIP shall contain the following parts: 903 | Operational Flight Information (OFIS) broadcasts should be broadcast via: 904 | A pilot encountering windshear should report the fact to ATC: 905 | Each AIRAC AIP amendment page shall display: 906 | Select the acronym corresponding to the following definition: an special NOTAM series noti 907 | An AIP shall consist of the following three parts: 908 | If a runway is reported as damp, the braking action may be assumed to be: 909 | A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN at intervals of: 910 | In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to areas and/or routes 911 | The braking action for a specific runway is reported as " 0.36" . This means the 912 | " A publication issued by or with the authority of a State and containing aeronautica 913 | Aerodrome locators are published in: 914 | The braking action for a specific runway is reported as " 0.25" . This means the 915 | The volcano alert code used in field E of an ASHTAM is: 916 | An AIRAC is: 917 | Information concerning the establishment and withdrawal of, and premeditated significant c 918 | For an aircraft in flight within an FIR, how would a report of severe turbulence be receiv 919 | In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to prohibited, restric 920 | Which of the following phenomena would cause a SIGMET to be transmitted to aircraft flying 921 | The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring important changes in the metho 922 | Detailed description of meteorological information provided at the aerodrome and an indica 923 | In which chapter of the AIP can you find a list with " location indicators" ? 924 | A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services and Air Navigatio 925 | A detailed description of lower ATS routes can be found in part... section... of the AIP. 926 | The temporary, long-term modification (3 months or more) and the short-term extensive or g 927 | Which information is not included in Instrument Approach Charts (IAC) in the AIP 928 | The duration of an ATIS message should not exceed: 929 | At least how many days in advance of the effective date must AIRAC information be distribu 930 | The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published: 931 | Which part is AIP Part 2? 932 | An aircraft in flight in an FIR would receive a report of severe turbulence in the... form 933 | Which section of the AIP contains information relating to the provision of a Meteorologica 934 | Which of the following describe the state of the surface of a runway? 935 | Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its terr 936 | Which of the following is not considered when establishing Aerodrome Operating Minima? 937 | " Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for the operation of a 938 | What is a PAPI? 939 | The aerodrome elevation is the height of: 940 | For planning purposes, an aerodrome is categorised by aerodrome reference code. This consi 941 | What is the name for a taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle designed to allow a 942 | The part of an aerodrome used for embarking and disembarking passengers, loading of cargo 943 | A precision approach runway CAT II is an instrument runway served by ILS and visual aids i 944 | " An area symmetrical about the extended runway centre line and adjacent to the end o 945 | A runway may be contaminated by frozen water deposits. What are the three states of frozen 946 | For planning purposes, an aerodrome is categorised by aerodrome reference code. This code 947 | An aerodrome reference point is defined as the... 948 | Objects located beyond 15 km radius of the aerodrome are normally considered to be obstacl 949 | " A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepa 950 | According with the " Aerodrome Reference Code" the " Code number 4" 951 | What does code element 2 of the aerodrome reference code refer to? 952 | The ICAO bird strike information system is also known as: 953 | The " Aerodrome Reference Code" is a code composed of two elements which are re 954 | Which " code letter" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an air 955 | Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes 956 | The abbreviation PAPI stands for: 957 | Category II operation is: 958 | " Code letter D" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft having 959 | A ... is defined as an area of specified dimensions enclosing a runway and taxiway to prov 960 | The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run availab 961 | According to the " Aerodrome Reference Code" , the " Code Letter E" s 962 | Airfield reference code E is used for aircraft with a maximum wingspan of: 963 | Do all runways require centreline markings? 964 | In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented: 965 | Which of the following correctly defines aerodrome operating minima? 966 | Which of the following group shows the correct designators for three parallel runways seen 967 | Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration: 968 | The width of a runway for an aerodrome with code number 4/D should not be less than: 969 | In the " Aerodrome Reference Code" the code element 2 shall identify: 970 | A detailed description of the visual ground aids can be found in ICAO Annex... 971 | Where an operator establishes an aerodrome operating minima, the minima: 972 | The main instrument runway at an aerodrome is 1875 m long. What is the radius of the Aerod 973 | When the surface of a runway is soaked but there is no standing water, the correct term is 974 | 4mm of rain is covering a runway. It is: 975 | The length of a clearway should not exceed: 976 | What is a " barrette" ? 977 | Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications f 978 | A volume of airspace extending upwards and outwards from an inner portion of the strip to 979 | Minimum transition altitude over an airfield: 980 | Which of the following systems describes an abbreviated precision approach path indicator: 981 | Fixed distance markings on certain precision approach runways are: 982 | Alternate yellow/green centreline lights of a taxiway indicate: 983 | If runway centre line lights are installed on a runway with a length of 1800 m or more, th 984 | How is a taxiway holding position marked? 985 | Runway end lights shall be: 986 | Fixed distance markings are placed: 987 | What does a white line drawn across a runway indicate? 988 | When taxiing on a surface with white markings, you are rolling on a: 989 | Airfield beacons (aeronautical beacons) usually show: 990 | Generally, when and where are stop bars provided? 991 | The runway edge lights shall be: 992 | Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be: 993 | What is the colour of runway edge lights? 994 | The following figure indicates: 995 | Which would you expect to find on a taxiway, at the closest point to a runway? 996 | In the " PAPI" system the pilot during an approach will see the two units neare 997 | What colour are runway edge lights? 998 | Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be: 999 | For an instrument runway, how far from the centre line of a runway is a " runway vaca 1000 | An aircraft that has stopped for a lit “ Stop Bar” may continue taxiing whe 1001 | The colour of a runway designation marking on a paved runway shall be: 1002 | When a fixed distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at: 1003 | An aiming point marking shall be provided at the approach end of a paved instrument runway 1004 | What colour are apron markings? 1005 | Runway centre line lights shall be fixed lights showing variable... from the threshold to 1006 | What colour is an aerodrome beacon at a land aerodrome? 1007 | In the " VASIS" , how many light units are in each wing bar? 1008 | Where are taxiway centre line lights showing alternatively green and yellow installed? 1009 | What is required if a stop bar is not provided at a taxi-holding position and the runway i 1010 | " 3-BAR AVASIS" , " PAPI" and " T-VASIS" shall be provided 1011 | Taxiway centre line lights on a taxiway other than an exit taxiway shall be fixed light sh 1012 | On a runway with a length of 1500 m, how many pairs of touchdown zone markings are require 1013 | What is/are required if a stop bar is not provided at a runway entrance and the runway is 1014 | How many pairs of touchdown zone markings are required on a runway with a length of 2500 m 1015 | Which of the following describes a location sign? 1016 | Which of the following correctly describes runway end lights? 1017 | Generally, when and where are stop bars provided? 1018 | Mandatory signs on an aerodrome use which combination of the following colours: 1019 | When on or close to the approach slope, the wing bar of a PAPI shows: 1020 | Configuration A runway guard lights shall be provided at each taxiway/runway intersection 1021 | Information signs (except location signs) consist of an inscription in... on a... backgrou 1022 | The light shown by an " Aerodrome Identification Beacon" at a land aerodrome sh 1023 | On a runway with a length of 2500 m, how far is the aiming point from the threshold? 1024 | The holding position shown in the figure (and indicated by an arrow) will be used: 1025 | In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights sh 1026 | Which of the following describes threshold lights? 1027 | Taxiway edge lights shall be: 1028 | What lighting is required for runways to be used for take-off in an operating minimum belo 1029 | Which of the following is not a mandatory instruction sign: 1030 | What shape is a landing direction indicator: 1031 | A pilot making an approach sees 3 red lights and 1 white light on the wingbar of a PAPI. T 1032 | Runway direction is indicated by two digits: 1033 | What colour is taxiway edge lighting? 1034 | The following sign is a: 1035 | What is the distance from the threshold to the beginning of the aiming point marking, if t 1036 | Runway threshold wing bar lights shall be fixed unidirectional lights showing... in the di 1037 | Are runway edge lights required to show at all angles in azimuth (omni-directionally)? 1038 | The pre-threshold area of a runway fit for movement of aircraft is marked with: 1039 | On a runway with a length of 1200 m, how far is the aiming point from the threshold? 1040 | How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in final approach, is following a no 1041 | Taxiway edge lights shall be fixed lights showing: 1042 | Runway threshold lights shall be: 1043 | The " PAPI" shall consist of: 1044 | With reference to colour coded taxiway lighting, which of the following is correct? 1045 | Alternate taxiway centre line lights shall show... and... from their beginning near the ru 1046 | The number of stripes on each side of the centre line of a runway which has a width of 45m 1047 | Runway centre line markings shall be provided on: 1048 | Where a runway has a displaced threshold and the whole of the runway is used for take-off, 1049 | What is the principle requirement for a signals area on an aerodrome? 1050 | What is a 'barrette'? 1051 | How many red lights are showing on the PAPI when you are on the glide path on final? 1052 | Mandatory signs consist of an inscription in .... on a .... background. 1053 | When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at: 1054 | Where a runway has a displaced threshold and the whole of the runway is used for take-off, 1055 | Runway edge lights except in the case of a displaced threshold shall be: 1056 | Where on a taxiway is the runway vacated sign located? 1057 | Runway centre line lights must be provided: 1058 | Mandatory instructions signs on an aerodrome shall have the following colours: 1059 | Taxiway markings and aircraft stand markings are: 1060 | High intensity obstacle lights should be used to indicate the presence of an object if its 1061 | Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be: 1062 | Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be: 1063 | High intensity obstacle lights should be: 1064 | Low intensity obstruction lights on vehicles and moving objects are: 1065 | An obstacle that is required to be marked in the vicinity of an aerodrome where night oper 1066 | Where a runway has a displaced threshold, what colour are the edge lights between the begi 1067 | When a runway is 2000 metres in length, and taxi holding positions have not been establish 1068 | The white arrows which are painted on the runway surface indicate: 1069 | The pre-threshold area of a runway fit for use by aircraft as a stopway, but not for norma 1070 | Where a runway has a displaced threshold what colour are the runway edge lights, between t 1071 | How is a paved pre-threshold area which is greater than 60 m in length but not suitable fo 1072 | Rescue and fire fighting (emergency) services provision is categorised according to physic 1073 | Aerodrome rescue and fire fighting categories are based upon: 1074 | The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on: 1075 | What colour are emergency vehicles painted that are used on the manoeuvring area of an aer 1076 | Crash/Rescue (emergency) services provision is categorised according to physical character 1077 | What is the fire fighting and rescue category of an aerodrome based on? 1078 | Where a parking bay is provided at an aerodrome suitable for the parking of an aircraft wh 1079 | Take-off distance available is defined as: 1080 | " TODA" take-off distance available is: 1081 | Which of the statements below describes the Accelerate Stop Distance Available (ASDA)? 1082 | TODA is defined as: 1083 | " Clearway" is defined rectangular area established to: 1084 | "ASDA" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is: 1085 | The declared take-off run available at an aerodrome is: 1086 | Regarding declared airfield distances the ASDA is: 1087 | For a precision cat II/III approach lighting system, what colour are the side row barrette 1088 | What is the only object permitted to protrude through the plane of a precision approach CA 1089 | Where no barrettes are used, each centre line light position of a category I precision app 1090 | CAT I approach lights (centre lights and crossbars) shall be fixed lights showing... 1091 | Which of the following alternatives describes the complete CAT I (Calvert) type of approac 1092 | Runway-lead-in lighting should consist: 1093 | In a precision approach category I lighting system, the single, two and three light source 1094 | Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is a speci 1095 | For a full Calvert CAT 1 approach lighting system, how many bars are required and what is 1096 | What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway CAT II: 1097 | For an inbound aircraft, the PIC can be asked to provide which of the following: 1098 | An aircraft flying to another contracting state: 1099 | An aircraft arriving in the United Kingdom from the USA must land at: 1100 | In case of aircraft registered in other Contracting States, which are not engaged in sched 1101 | Which of the following documents need to be carried on International Air Navigation accord 1102 | For inbound procedures, how many copies of the required forms are to be delivered to the p 1103 | The documents for entry and departure of aircraft: 1104 | The part of an aerodrome provided for the stationing of aircraft for the purpose of embark 1105 | Contracting states shall not require the authorized agent or pilot-in-command to deliver t 1106 | An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air services and which is maki 1107 | When de-insecting is required by a Contracting State as a public health measure, the de-in 1108 | Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure applicable to: 1109 | The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a Contracti 1110 | When cargo, unaccompanied baggage or stores are not unladen at their intended destination 1111 | On a general declaration form, the following data can be found: 1112 | The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in intern 1113 | Medical examination is normally limited to those people arriving from an area infected wit 1114 | What is the purpose of a Crew Member's Certificate (CMC)? 1115 | What documentation is required by persons travelling by air, for entry into a state? 1116 | When an airline crew member, in the exercise of her/his duties, travels to another Contrac 1117 | In cases where a visitor travelling by air holds a valid passport and no visa is required 1118 | Contracting states shall carry out the handling, forwarding and clearance of airmail and s 1119 | Which ICAO annex is dedicated to facilitate the passage of passengers at the aerodromes? 1120 | The crew member certificate (CMC) shall be accepted by each Contracting State for identifi 1121 | The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on interna 1122 | Except in special circumstances determined by the public authorities concerned, when a pas 1123 | Which annex deals with the entry into a country of passengers and baggage? 1124 | Which one of the statements is correct: 1125 | A contracting state which continues to require the presentation of a cargo manifest shall, 1126 | COSPAS-SARSAT is: 1127 | The units responsible for promoting efficient organization of search and rescue service ar 1128 | An accident is an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which: 1129 | A situation in which apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft. To which emergen 1130 | Which of the following statements describes the Uncertainty Phase (INCERFA)? 1131 | Which of the following statements describes the Distress Phase (DETRESFA)? 1132 | Which of the following are emergency/SAR frequencies?
1. 121.500 MHz
1133 | Search and Rescue services within the territory of ICAO contracting states are provided: 1134 | Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct? 1135 | The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are: 1136 | The different emergency phases (in correct order) are: 1137 | Which of the following statements describes the Alert Phase (ALERFA)? 1138 | DETRESFA is where: 1139 | Contracting States shall establish a rescue co-ordination centre: 1140 | A Rescue Unit is: 1141 | An aircraft is in emergency when: 1142 | " A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occ 1143 | When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the a 1144 | A turboprop aeroplane is performing an over water flight, which takes it further than 340 1145 | Whenever a distress signal and/or message or equivalent transmission is intercepted by the 1146 | The colour identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing 1147 | An operator shall not operate an aeroplane certified to JAR25, across an area in which sea 1148 | Packages of supplies to survivors may be dropped from aircraft. A red streamer attached to 1149 | What colour streamer identifies food and water dropped to survivors? 1150 | The colour identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing 1151 | What is the meaning of V seen on the ground in the vicinity of an aircraft crash site? 1152 | Survival equipment, dropped by SAR and containing food and water will be packed in contain 1153 | The colour identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing 1154 | When a PIC observes that either another aircraft or a surface craft is in distress he shal 1155 | What colour streamer identifies medical supplies dropped to survivors? 1156 | The following frequencies are carried by SAR aircraft: 1157 | Three aircraft, (1), (2) and (3), arrive successively at ten minute intervals, overhead th 1158 | You are flying over the NAT region when you intercept a distress call. You record the mess 1159 | Give the colour of medical supplies packages dropped by SAR aircraft: 1160 | What colour streamer would identify cooking equipment dropped to survivors? 1161 | Which of the following frequencies are used for emergency operations? 1162 | The colour identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing 1163 | Which of the following is NOT an international distress frequency? 1164 | The ground - air visual code for: " REQUIRE ASSISTANCE" is: 1165 | What is the meaning of the following ground-air visual signal? 1166 | The Ground-Air signal " NN" means: 1167 | What is the meaning of the following ground-air visual signal? 1168 | Which signal indicates 'Require assistance'? 1169 | Ground-air signals code for survivors: What is the meaning of an X displayed on the ground 1170 | Which of the following signals is a distress signal? 1171 | What is the meaning of the following ground-air visual signal? 1172 | Using the ground - air visual signal code, the letter similar to the symbol meaning REQUIR 1173 | What does the signal Z mean? 1174 | An aircraft is flying over a mountainous region in which a search is being carried out to 1175 | Which of the following ground signals is used by survivors to request assistance? 1176 | You are flying in a mountainous region and you see the letter X on the ground. What does t 1177 | What is the meaning of this SAR visual signal when used by survivors on the ground? 1178 | Using the ground - air visual code the letter(s) similar to the symbol meaning REQUIRE ASS 1179 | What does the SAR ground signal 'V' mean? 1180 | What is the meaning of the following ground-air visual signal? 1181 | With regard to SAR operations, what does the code X mean (for use by survivors)? 1182 | Using the ground-air visual code, the symbol meaning WE HAVE FOUND ALL PERSONNEL is: 1183 | Which signal indicates 'operations complete'? 1184 | What frequency does the emergency locator beacon transmit on? 1185 | In the ground/air emergency code the symbol X means: 1186 | In the ground/air emergency code the symbol V means: 1187 | What is the meaning of the following ground-air visual signal? 1188 | In the ground to air emergency signalling code, the code symbol X means: 1189 | What is the meaning of the symbol V seen from the air over a crash site? 1190 | The ground - air visual code illustrated means: 1191 | At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has r 1192 | What is the meaning of this symbol in the ground air visual signal code for use by survivo 1193 | What is the meaning of SAR signal "N" when used by survivors on the ground: 1194 | What is the meaning of the following ground-air visual signal? 1195 | Survivors of an aircraft accident, requiring medical assistance will display the following 1196 | Which of the following statements is correct concerning the flight crew compartment door? 1197 | Each contracting state shall establish measures to ensure that the aircraft operator is in 1198 | If unidentified baggage is found at an airport: 1199 | Where are aircraft that have been subjected to unlawful interference to be parked on an ae 1200 | Which of the following applies to general declaration? 1201 | A State shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft 1202 | What is required if security personnel on board are to be armed? 1203 | The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent lands and buildings or the parts of them wi 1204 | When a member state allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other agents of 1205 | Each State, according ICAO Annex 17, shall ensure the establishment of a security programm 1206 | Each contracting state shall designate an appropriate authority within its administration 1207 | If mixing or contact between passengers subjected to security control and other persons no 1208 | For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are t 1209 | An aircraft shall not carry munitions of war: 1210 | If an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure has landed on its territory, each C 1211 | The radar controller suspects that you are experiencing unlawful interference. What should 1212 | Which of the following statements is correct with respect to unlawful interference? 1213 | Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with the administration to be 1214 | The ICAO Annex 17 comprise rules in order to establish security measures for passengers: 1215 | An airport security program shall be established by each State for: 1216 | Where unaccompanied baggage is carried on board an aircraft: 1217 | When an aircraft subjected to an unlawful interference has landed it shall notify by the m 1218 | Annex 17 to the ICAO convention assigns responsibility to member states to implement: 1219 | Each State of ICAO Annex 17 shall ensure the establishment of a security programme 1220 | Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be 1221 | What is a state required to do regarding the aeroplane which has been unlawfully interfere 1222 | A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure. T 1223 | A passenger's sporting shotgun may be carried on an aircraft: 1224 | Where a parking bay is not provided at an aerodrome for the use by aircraft that have been 1225 | Contracting states are required to have procedures in place for the safety of passengers a 1226 | The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by: 1227 | Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the fol 1228 | When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control an 1229 | The aim of aviation security is the following: 1230 | Referring to the operational aspects in the unlawful seizure acts, it can be said: 1231 | Standards and Recommended Practices for Security are contained in ICAO ANNEX... 1232 | Which Annex of the Chicago Convention covers Security? 1233 | How far from other parking areas or installations is the parking area designated for aircr 1234 | When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away fro 1235 | Who is responsible to establish security measures? 1236 | Definition of " security, the ICAO Annex 17" , is a combination of measures .... 1237 | Passenger A has passed through security and meets passenger B who has not been through sec 1238 | Who is responsible for the initiation of an accident investigation? 1239 | Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently on the grass, a wheel falls into 1240 | When an accident occurs in the territory of a Contracting State the investigation will be 1241 | Which of the following defines an incident? 1242 | Upon receipt of the modification and a request by the state of occurrence for participatio 1243 | The conducting of an accident investigation may be delegated, in whole or in part, to: 1244 | The State conducting an accident investigation shall: 1245 | Which of the following would NOT constitute an accident: 1246 | The responsibility to institute an investigation into the circumstances of an accident res 1247 | The accident investigation preliminary report shall be submitted to appropriate States and 1248 | The objective of the investigation of an accident or incident shall be the: 1249 | When taxiing from the stand to the runway a person on the ground is injured by the jet bla 1250 | What is the primary objective of an accident/incident investigation? 1251 | If an emergency situation, which endangers the safety of the aeroplane, necessitates the t 1252 | The purpose of an aircraft accident investigation shall be: 1253 | Which of the following, according to ICAO Annex 13, shall be entitled to appoint an accred 1254 | Who is responsible, under Annex 13 of the Chicago convention for the initation of an accid 1255 | During taxi to the runway for take off, the aircraft is accidentally taxied onto the grass 1256 | Which of the following would be considered to be an accident?